UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination Previous (Solved) Question Paper II - 2019
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts the Civil Services exam to recruit candidates for different All India Services and Central Civil Services for various departments of the Government of India. The Civil Services Exam is commonly called as the IAS Exam.
Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Previous Question Paper / Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Solved Question Paper / Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Previous Question Paper / General Studies Question Paper II / General Studies (GS) Paper II- 2019 / General Studies (GS) Paper II - 2019
PSC Degree Level Exam Previous Questions and Answers - Click here
KAS Exam Preparation / Kerala Public Service Commission (KPSC) is organising the Kerala Administrative Exam 2019 for the first time.
General Studies (GS) Paper-II - 2019
UPSC IAS Prelims CSAT (GS Paper 2) Answer Key 2019 with explanation (SERIES A)(PAPER-II)
Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Previous Question Paper / Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Solved Question Paper / Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam Previous Question Paper / General Studies Question Paper II / General Studies (GS) Paper II- 2019 / General Studies (GS) Paper II - 2019
PSC Degree Level Exam Previous Questions and Answers - Click here
KAS Exam Preparation / Kerala Public Service Commission (KPSC) is organising the Kerala Administrative Exam 2019 for the first time.
General Studies (GS) Paper-II - 2019
UPSC IAS Prelims CSAT (GS Paper 2) Answer Key 2019 with explanation (SERIES A)(PAPER-II)
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read the following seven passages and
answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.
Passage - 1
Political theorists no doubt have to take history of
injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical
injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the
present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might
account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice
buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of
exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two,
the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of
wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of
recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between
a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally
discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne
out by the history of repair in India.
1. What is the main idea that we can infer from the
passage?
(a) Untouchability in India has not been taken seriously
by political theorists.
(b) Historical injustice is inevitable in any society and
is always beyond repair.
(c) Social discrimination and deprivation have their
roots in bad economies.
(d) It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every
manifestation of historical injustice.
Answer: d
2. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of
social discrimination.
2. Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical
wrongs.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Passage - 2
Education plays a great transformatory role in life,
particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities
are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and
specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to
beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God's
earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and
expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start
from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art.
Together it will impart meaning to human existence.
3. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. A society without well-educated people cannot be
transformed into a modern society.
2. Without acquiring culture, a person's education is not
complete.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Passage - 3
Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living
resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75
billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming — and not
just for food producers. Soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the
form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere.
4. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for
widespread food insecurity in the world.
2. Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.
3. Sustainable management of soils helps in combating
climate change.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Passage - 4
Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in
many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not
measurable... Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of
inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its
effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which
economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly
obscure,
5. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Economic power is the only reason for the existence of
inequality in a society.
2. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc,
reinforces power.
3. Economic power can be analysed more through its
effects than by direct empirical methods.
Which of thy above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Passage - 5
Climate change may actually benefit some plants by
lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of
a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will be less
benign. How will the world adapt ? Researchers project that by 2050, suitable
croplands for four commodities — maize, potatoes, rice and wheat — will shift,
in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit
from warming, but others won't. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political
shifts, global "demand, and agricultural practices will influence how
farms fare in the future.
6. Which one of the following is the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from) the above passage?
(a) Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify
their fields will be. in an advantageous position in future.
(b) Climate change will adversely affect the crop
diversity.
(c) Shifting ma' r crops to new croplands will lead to a
gr t increase in the total area under culti tion and thus an increase in
overall agricultural production.
(d) Climate change is the most important factor affecting
the agricultural economy in the future.
Answer: a
Passage - 6
A bat's wings may look like sheets of skin. But
underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well
as a wrist connected to the same cluster of wrist bones connected to the same
long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man,
formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse,
the-paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed
on the some pattern ?
7. Which one of the following is the most logical,
scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Different species having similar structure of hands
is an example of biodiversity.
(b) Limbs being used by different species for different
kinds of work is an example of biodiversity.
(c) Man and the aforementioned animals having similar
structure of limbs is an example of coincidence in evolution.
(d) Man and the aforementioned animals have a shared
evolutionary history.
Answer: d
Passage - 7
Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not
fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk
from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was
warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was
about to get much warmer still —rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive
geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene -
Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was
roughly the amount that Would be injected today if humans burned all the
Earth's reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about
1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought,
floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived — indeed,
it prospered — but it was drastically different.
8. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions
have been made :
1. Global warming has a bearing on the planet's
biological evolution.
2. Separation of landmasses causes the release of huge
quantities of carbon into the atmosphere.
3. Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the
composition of its flora and fauna.
4. The present man-made global warming will finally lead
to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago.
Which of the assumptions given above are valid?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: c
9. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while
writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
(a) 269
(b) 271
(c) 300
(d) 302
Answer: c
10. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such
that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of
two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are
Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have
only one face painted?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer: c
11. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on
the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with
respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?
(a) 60%
(b) 45.5%
(c) 40%
(d) 37.5%
Answer: d
12. Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first
child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th
Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which
falls on 20th December?
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
(d) Sunday
Answer: b
13. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:
Statements:
1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.
Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the
statements?
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
Answer: c
14. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from
a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines,
is
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 36
Answer: d
15. In a school every student is assigned a unique
identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the
identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if
and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1
to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as
football?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer: b
16. When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was
informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was
the runner supposed to run in this event?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 16.5
Answer: b
17. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a
mobile handset, but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy
the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then
(a) Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the
handset.
(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy
the handset.
(c) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will
have 500 with him after buying the handset.
(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will
have 1000 with him after buying the handset.
Answer: a
18. In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of
Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's
year of birth?
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1998
Answer: b
19. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10
rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three
times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?
(a) Rs. 70
(b) Rs. 90
(c) Rs. 210
(d) Rs. 240
Answer: c
20. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70
are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Read the following six passages and answer
the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
Passage –1
Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap
commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items
is proliferating with new applications; many home appliances, thermostats,
security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices are part of
the IoT. So are fitness trackers, certain medical implants and computer-like
devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially — but new
security challenges are daunting.
21. Which one of the following statements is the most
logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Development of enabling technologies in India can be
a big boost to its manufacturing sector.
(b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in view of
the imminent security challenges.
(c) Life becomes more comfortable with the development of
cheap low-end IoT devices.
(d) As we go digital, we must recognise the huge threat
to Internet security from some IoT devices.
Answer: d
Passage - 2
With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social
sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing
the digital area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. Big Data is freely
collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital
intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control
different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing
cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital
intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events,
presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on.
22. Which one of the following is the most logical and
rational corollary to the above passage?
(a) Globalization is not in the interests of India as it
undermines its socio-economic structures.
(b) India should be careful to protect its digital
sovereignty in global trade talks.
(c) India should charge monopoly rents from multinational
companies in exchange for Big Data.
(d) The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to
the degree/value of its foreign trade.
Answer: b
23. Which of the following is most definitively implied
by the above passage?
(a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.
(b) Big economies create Big Data.
(c) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed
countries.
(d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a
characteristic of developed countries.
Answer: a
Passage - 3
The rural poor across the world, including India, have
contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the
frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical
averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme
weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are
new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water
supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion peopre
worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in
India produce 24. percent of the country's food grains, and other food items
that contribute to local and national food security.
35. What is the most logical and rational Corry to the
above passage?
(a) Supporting small farmers is an important part of any
agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.
(b) Poor countries have little role to play in the
mitigation of global warming.
(c) Due to a large number of farmer households, India
will not have food security problem in the foreseeable future.
(d) Only small-holder farmers in India can ensure food
security.
Answer: a
25. The above passage implies that
1. There is a potential problem of food insecurity in
India.
2. India will have to strengthen its disaster management
capabilities.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Passage – 4
A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of
governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on
investors' returns. Companies that produce or use large amounts of fossil fuels
will face higher taxes and regulatory burdens. Some energy producers may find
it impossible to exploit their known reserves, and be left with "stranded
assets" — deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in the ground.
Other industries could be affected by the economic damage caused by more extreme
weather — storms, floods, heat waves and droughts.
26. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. Governments and companies need to be adequately
prepared to face the climate change.
2. Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth
of governments and companies'in future.
3. Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Passage - 5
Access to schooling for those coming of school age is
close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with
socio-economic status. Quotas for the weaker sections in private schools is a
provision introduced by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
Act, 2009. The quotas have imposed a debate on issues of social integration and
equity in education that private actors had escaped by and large, The idea of
egalitarian education system with equality of opportunity as its primary goal
appears to be outside the space that private school principals inhabit.
Therefore, the imposition of the quotas has led to resistance, sometimes
justified,
27. With reference to the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. Making equality of opportunity a reality is the
fundamental goal of the Indian education system.
2. The present Indian school system is unable to provide
egalitarian education.
3. Abolition of private schools and establishment of more
government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: a
Passage – 6
A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack
sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of
prevention. TB then devastates families, makes the poor poorer, particularly
affects women and children, and leads to ostracisation and loss of employment.
The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will.
Another truth is that deep-seated stigma, lack of
counselling, expensive treatment and lack of adequate
support from providers and family, coupled with torturous side-effects
demotivate patients to continue treatment — with disastrous health
consequences.
28. Which one of the following is the most logical,
rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) TB is not a curable disease in Indian circumstances.
(b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical
treatment.
(c) Government's surveillance mechanism is deficient, and poor people have no access to treatment.
(d) India will be free from diseases like TB only when
its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully
implemented.
Answer: b
29. A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is
painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a
floor.
Consider the following statements:
1. The middle three floors are painted in different
colours.
2. The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted
in different colours.
3. The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted
red.
To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different
colours
(a) Only statement 2 is sufficient
(b) Only statement 3 is sufficient
(c) Statement 1 is not sufficient, but statement 1 along
with statement 2 is sufficient
(d) Statement 3 is not sufficient, but statement 3 along
with statement 2 is sufficient
Answer: b
30. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P
and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West
of P and R is in the South of P. What is the distance between Q and R?
(a) 140 km
(b) 130 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 100 km
Answer: d
31. All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a
hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing,
whereas 10% took rest in the hotel. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be
drawn from the above data?
1. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.
2. 20% members went for only shopping.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
32. In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who
does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a
two-wheeler. Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above
data?
1. 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.
2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler.
3. Cricket players do not play football.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
33. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number
formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer: b
34. In an examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B.
If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?
(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 400
(d) 420
Answer: b
35. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2
days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a
swim together, when will they go together next?
(a) 7th January
(b) 8th January
(c) 12th January
(d) 13th January
Answer: d
36. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m.
Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m
and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in a race of 1000 m,
how many metres start will Y give to Z?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Answer: b
37. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less
than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?
(a) x is greater than y
(b) (y - x) is'greater than 15
(c) (y - x) is less than or equal to 15
(d) (x - y) is greater than or equal to 65
Answer: c
38. Ena was born 4 years after her parents' marriage. Her
mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who
is 13 years old. At what age did Ena's father get married?
(a) 22 years
(b) 23 years
(c) 24 years
(d) 25 years
Answer: b
39. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a
specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that
particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had.
What was the discount the retailer offered?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
Answer: b
40. The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40.
It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83.
The corrected mean marks are
(a) 39
(b) 39.7
(c) 40
(d) 40.3
Answer: b
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:
Read the following six passages and answer
the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
Passage — 1
What stands in the way of the widespread and careful
adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an `Intellectual Property
Rights' regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies.
If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and
that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for
herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short
window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance.
This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that
priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes
that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
41. Which one of the following is the most logical,
rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Public research institutions should take the lead in
GM technology and prioritise the technology agenda.
(b) Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO
and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights.
(c) Private corporations should not be allowed to do
agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business.
(d) Present Indian circumstances do not favour the
cultivation of genetically modified crops.
Answer: a
42. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. The issue of effects of natural calamities on
agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.
2. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to
solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Passage - 2
Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor
very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading
especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as
bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological
diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native
species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed
habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else
lives. They are nature's opportunists.
43. Which one of the following is the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate
desert areas and wastelands of a country.
(b) Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are
unnecessary.
(c) Sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are
pointless.
(d) Foreign plants should be used to increase the
biodiversity of a country.
Answer: a
Passage – 3
Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to
food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe
chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to
food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad
factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of
adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance
of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails
good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban
population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in
training and education of street vendors is of great significance.
44. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a
multipronged solution.
2. Great investments need to be made in developing the
manpower for surveillance and training.
3. India needs to make sufficient legislation for
governing food processing industry.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Passage - 4
The interests of working and poor people have
historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are
increasingly intolerant,', unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of
citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways — the static Development
Plan — that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's
live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people,
places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city.
45. The passage seems to argue
(a) against the monopoly of builders and the interests of
elite groups.
(b) against the need for global and smart cities.
(c) in favour of planning cities mainly for working class
and poor people.
(d) in favour of participation of peoples' groups in city
planning.
Answer: d
Passage - 5
A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent
employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic
growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our
economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector
was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8
percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector
actually declined to 1 percent per year.
46. The above passage seems to imply that
1. most of modern economic growth is based on
technological progress.
2. much of modern Indian economy does not nurture
sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based
livelihoods.
3. service sector in India is not very labour-intensive.
4. literate rural population is not willing to enter
organised sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a
Passage — 6
India has banking correspondents, who help bring people
in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot
crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial
education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed
as a systemic risk. Yet India's banking regulator has restricted them to
serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage.'Efforts at banking
outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such
last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank
accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro
pension schemes.
47. Which one of the following is the most logical,
rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
(a) Efforts to bring people in India's hinterland into
the banking system are not successful.
(b) For meaningful financial inclusion, India's banking
system needs more number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile
workers.
(c) Meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that
banking correspondents have diverse skills
(d) Better banking outreach would be impossible unless
each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks
Answer: b
48. What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106,
93, X ?
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 76
(d) 77
Answer: c
49. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours.
The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When
the clock shows the time 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the correct time ?
(a) 5:36 p.m.
(b) 5:30 p.m.
(c) 5:24 p.m.
(d) 5:18 p.m.
Answer: a
50. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction
are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the
resulting fraction is
(a) always less than the original fraction
(b) always greater than the original fraction
(c) always equal to the original fraction
(d) such that nothing can .be claimed definitely
Answer: b
51. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100,
64, X ?
(a) 48
(b) 64
(c) 125
(d) 256
Answer: b
52. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can
read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The
number of people who can read exactly one language is
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer: b
53. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1
and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have ?
(a) 1040
(b) 1048
(c) 1049
(d) 1050
Answer: d
54. Consider the following sequence that follows some
arrangement:
c_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in the gaps are
(a) abba
(b) cbbb
(c) bbbb
(d) cccc
Answer: b
55. A family has two children along with their parents.
The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The
average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight
of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother ?
(a) 48 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 52 kg
(d) 54 kg
Answer: d
56. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency
in three denominations : Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways
can you pay a bill of Rs. 107 ?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
Answer: c
57. 'A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards
East, where his friend 13' joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same
direction. Then 'A' turned left while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m and 8
m respectively. Again 'B' turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his
right to reach his office. 'A' turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his
office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices ?
(a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 19 m
(d) 20 m
Answer: b
58. Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a
question:
S1: p and q both are prime numbers.
S2: p + q is an odd integer.
Question: Is pq an odd integer?
Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not sufficient to
answer the question
(d) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question
Answer: c
59. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009 ?
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2015
Answer: d
60. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is
7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by
3. The only possible value of B is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: d
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:
Read the following five passages and answer
the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
Passage - 1
India's economic footprint, given its population, still
remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to
learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique
circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system
based on collaboration rather than the ' current top-down approach. Regulations
seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one
agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and
economic growth — or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to
protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the
future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended
consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to
be viewed as "weapons" that seek cost-justified social and
environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most
citizens.
61. Which one of the following is the most logical,
rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage ?
(a) A better regulatory system will help India achieve
the size of economy appropriate to its population.
(b) In a competitive global economy, India must use
regulations strategically.
(c) Regulations in India do not favour its integration
with today's hyper competitive global economy.
(d) Job creation and economic growth should be dominant
considerations in developing India's regulatory system.
Answer: a
62. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
In today's global economy,
1. regulations are not effectively used to protect local
markets.
2. social and environmental concerns are generally
ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Passage — 2
In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly
nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were
isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The
microbiome was "immature" and less diverse in malnourished children
compared to the better developed "mature" microbiome found in healthy
children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition
of mother's milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated
oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition.
However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar
which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar
in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature.
That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.
63. Which one of the following is the most logical,
rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage ?
(a) If malnourished condition in children is caused by
gut bacteria, it cannot be treated.
(b) The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated
with mature microbiomes.
(c) Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with
dairy milk fortified with sialylated oligosaccharides instead of mother's milk.
(d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on
nutrition has policy implications.
Answer: c
64. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the
children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition.
2. The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to
be' malnourished. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Passage – 3
Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on
the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five
decades. Researchers have now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of
species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic
Peninsula, Impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They Believe increased
levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity
in the coastal region.
65. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been Made :
1. Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due
to global warming.
2. Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in
some areas.
3. Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in
some areas.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Passage - 4
A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey
on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over
the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small
mammals over the past 'millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth
went through a period of rapid warming about 13,000 years ago, the small mammal
community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter of the
nineteenth century, human-made changes to the environment had caused an
enormous drop in biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline in energy flow
means modern ecosystems are not adapting as easily as they did in the past.
66. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Global warming is a frequently occurring natural
phenomenon.
2. The impending global warming will not adversely affect
small mammals.
3. Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth's
natural resilience.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Passage — 5
Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world
--- and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that
were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than o hundred remain. In the
Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a
hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated
just a century ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past painstakingly bred and
developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and
environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding
varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing
the dwindling of diversity in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or
future climate change decimates the few crop plants we have come to depend on
to feed our growing population, we might desperately need some of those
varieties we have let go extinct.
67. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made :
1. Humans have been the main reason for the large scale
extinction of plant species.
2. Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated
crops ensures crop diversity.
3. The present style of production and distribution of
food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future.
4. Our food security may depend on our ability to
preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops.
Which of the above assumptions are valid ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Answer: a
68. If every alternative letter of the English alphabet
from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the
remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second
half of the year written?
(a) JuLY
(b) jULy
(c) jUly
(d) jUlY
Answer: d
69. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces.
Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd
prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus
one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two
pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is
(a) 13 units
(b) 15 units
(c) 16 units
(d) 30 units
Answer: d
70. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how
many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are
immediately followed by 7?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
Answer: a
71. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D,
E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F.
B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
72. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white
colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Answer: b
73. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x +
y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer: d
74. If $ means 'divided by'; @ means 'multiplied by'; #
means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 9
Answer: d
75. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when
divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer: b
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following information and answer
the three items that follow:
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several
tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E
scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least.
In all the tests they got different marks; D scores
higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores
higher than A.
76. If F stands second in the ranking, then the position
of B is
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Answer: c
77. If B scores the least, the rank of C will be
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Second or third
Answer: d
78. If E is ranked third, then which one of the following
is correct?
(a) E gets more marks than C
(b) C gets more marks than E
(c) A is ranked fourth
(d) D is ranked fifth
Answer: b
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Read the following statements SI and S2 and answer the
two items that follow:
S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the
weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the
weight of Mohan or that of Sohan.
79. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest
(b) Weight of Sohan is greatest
(c) Weight of Rohan is greatest
(d) Whose weight is greatest' cannot be determined
Answer: d
80. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is least
(b) Weight of Sohan is least
(c) Weight of Rohan is least
(d) 'Whose weight is least' cannot be determined
Answer: b
PSC Solved Question Papers ---> Click here
PSC TODAY's EXAM RESULTS ---> Click here
PSC EXAM PROGRAMME -> Click here
CURRENT AFFAIRS QUESTIONS -> Click here
PSC Degree Level Questions & Answers - Click here
PSC 10th, +2 Level Questions & Answers - Click here
PSC RANK LISTS / SHORTLISTS -> Click here
TEACHING APTITUDE TEST (K-TET, C-TET,, etc.) ---> Click here* SCERT KERALA TEXTBOOKS FOR CLASS II, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X, XII – FREE DOWNLOAD ---> Click here
* NCERT & CBSE TEXTBOOKS FOR ALL CLASSES – FREE DOWNLOAD ---> Click here
* SCERT TEXTBOOKS SOLUTIONS FOR ALL CLASSES ---> Click here
* NCERT & CBSE TEXTBOOKS SOLUTIONS FOR ALL CLASSES ---> Click here
0 Comments