Indian Penal Code - PSC Questions and Answers
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* IPC - PSC Previous Questions and Answers
Paper: Indian Penal Code (Part I - Paper I)
Date of Test 18-10-2020
Question1:-Most important characteristic of the Indian Penal Code
A:-Specific
B:-Comprehensive
C:-Lengthiest
D:-Rigid
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question2:-The term 'crime' is not synonymous with the following
A:-offence
B:-Criminal offence
C:-tort
D:-criminal wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-Criminal science is connoted by Kenny as
A:-social study to discover the cource of criminality
B:-physical study to identify the methods of crimes
C:-financial study to analyse the economics of crime
D:-psychological study to seek intention of criminals
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question4:-Principle of criminal liability is
A:-establishes the state responsibility to control crimes
B:-introduces the social mandate to prevent crimes
C:-introduce the civil and criminal liability is an offence
D:-recognition of the mental and physical elements of crime
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Regarding public offence which of the following is not relevant
A:-affect specific individual is public space
B:-affect whole community at large
C:-affect all members of the state
D:-affect an indefinite member of individuals
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question6:-Generally burden of proof in criminal matters has
Question7:-An eye for an eye and a tooth for a is the moto of the
A:-Difference theory of justice
B:-Retributive theory of justice
C:-Expiatory theory of justice
D:-Preventive theory of justice
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question8:-Indian Penal Code came in to operation as
A:-1st October 1860
B:-1st April 1862
C:-1st October 1862
D:-1st January 1862
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question9:-President of India has been protected and exempted from the effect of IPC under
A:-Article 361(1)
B:-Article 362(1)
C:-Article 360(1)
D:-Article 363(1)
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question10:-Which of the following has no immunity under IPC?
A:-Foreign sovereign
B:-Ambasoders of Foreign State
C:-Foreign citizen
D:-Alien enemies
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Basis of liability of a person under section 4 of IPC is
A:-Citizenship
B:-Nature of the act
C:-Civil responsibility
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-''General explanations'' under IPC has been incorporated in
A:-Chapter I
B:-Chapter II
C:-Chapter III
D:-Chapter IV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-The term person under IPC includes
A:-human being
B:-artificial person
C:-natural being
D:-legal person
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question14:-'Judge' under IPC denotes
A:-only a person designated as judge
B:-who is empowered to give judgement
C:-one of a body of persons empowered by law to give a judgement
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-Who is the following is not a public servant?
A:-Subdivisional Magistrate
B:-Panchayat President
C:-Secretary of Municipal Corporation
D:-Kartha of a joint family
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question16:-Corporeal property except land and things attached to earth permanently denotes _______ under law.
A:-movable property
B:-immovable property
C:-intellectual property
D:-all of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-A person loses a property and which is availed by another person who is not legally entitled the same, denotes
A:-attachment
B:-taking
C:-wrongful gain
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question18:-'Counterfict' is defined as causing one thing to resumble another thing, by IPC under section
A:-23
B:-25
C:-26
D:-28
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Matters described upon any substance by means of letters, figures, or marks, intended to use as evidence under law called as
A:-written statement
B:-document
C:-information
D:-all of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question20:-''Will'' denotes ______ under IPC
A:-a testamentary document
B:-a registered document
C:-a partition document
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question21:-Each of persons is liable for an act in the same manner as if it was done by him alone denotes
A:-single person commits several acts
B:-several persons commit different act with common intention
C:-several persons commit same act with different intention
D:-all the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question22:-The effect caused partly by an act and partly by omission is
A:-a civil wrong
B:-a tort
C:-an offence
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question23:-Definition to the word offence under IPC
A:-anything punishable under the code
B:-anything charged under the code
C:-anything settled under the code
D:-all the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-Section 43 of the IPC explain the term illegal as
A:-everything punishable under the law
B:-everything bound by the law
C:-everything denied by the law
D:-everything is an offence or prohibited by law
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-Injury includes ______ under IPC.
A:-harm caused to body only
B:-harm caused to property only
C:-harm caused to mind only
D:-harm caused to body, mind, reputation or property
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-What is special law under IPC?
A:-applicable to particular part of the country
B:-applicable to particular subjects matter
C:-applicable to particular persons in the state
D:-applicable to particular type of offences
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question27:-Animal means under IPC _____?
A:-living creatures including human being
B:-living creatures including flora and fauna
C:-living creatures other than human being
D:-living creatures including mammals only
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-Good faith can be denoted by bonafide where as bad faith is
A:-illegal
B:-malafide
C:-wrong
D:-faithless
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question29:-How many classes of imprisonment furnished under IPC at present
A:-Three
B:-Two
C:-One
D:-Indefinite
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question30:-Power of the government to commute a sentence provided under IPC is incorporated in ____?
A:-Section 51
B:-Section 52
C:-Section 53
D:-Section 54
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question31:-With respect to IPC ''appropriate government'' means
A:-Union government only
B:-State government only
C:-Both Union and State government respectively
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question32:-When and where no sum is expressly mentioned by IPC as fine it may be
A:-limited
B:-excessive
C:-variable
D:-unlimited but not excessive
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question33:-An act done by a person bound or by mistake of fact believing himself bound is ______ under IPC.
A:-is an offence
B:-is not an offence
C:-partly an offence
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Act of a child between the age of seven and twelve years is not an offence if
A:-he is of immature understanding of his conduct
B:-he is of having improper understanding of his conduct
C:-he is of having false information of his conduct
D:-he is of having absolute knowledge of his conduct
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-Unsoundness of mind at the time of the act is a ground for general exception under which section of IPC
A:-82
B:-83
C:-84
D:-85
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-Abetment of a thing under section 107 of IPC consists ____ different meanings.
A:-two
B:-three
C:-four
D:-none of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-Criminal conspiracy is defined is
A:-Section 120-A of IPC
B:-Section 121 of IPC
C:-Section 124-of IPC
D:-Section 132 of IPC
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-Punishment for criminal conspiracy provided under section 120-B(1) of IPC is
A:-Imprisonment for 6 months or with fine or with both
B:-Imprisonment for one year or with fine or with both
C:-Imprisonment for 3 years or with fine or with both
D:-Punished in the same manner as if he had a belted such offence
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question39:-Offences against the state is in comported is ----------- of IPC 1860
A:-Chapter IV
B:-Chapter V
C:-Chapter VI
D:-Chapter VII
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-Section 124-A deals with ----------- in IPC
A:-Waging war against the state
B:-Sedition
C:-Extortion
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question41:-Unlawful assembly is an offence against
A:-Public tranquility
B:-Moral harmony
C:-Economic stability
D:-Social productivity
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question42:-Punishment stipulated under section 145 of IPC is
A:-One month imprisonment, or with fine, or with both
B:-Three months imprisonment, or with fine, or with both
C:-Six months imprisonment, or with fine, or with both
D:-All the above punishment according to the gravity of offence
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-Promoting enmity between different groups an ground of religion, race, place of birth etc is an offence under ------------- of IPC
A:-Section 153
B:-Section 153-B
C:-Section 153-A
D:-Section 153-C
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-What is 'affray' according to IPC?
A:-Organising any unrully mass in public place
B:-Two or more persons fighting in public place to disturb public peace
C:-Distructing public property to create fear
D:-All of the above statements
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question45:-Electoral right of a person has been incorporate in -------------- of IPC
A:-Section 170
B:-Section 171
C:-Section 170-A
D:-Section 171A
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question46:-Chapter IX-A of IPC incorporate provisions related to
A:-Offences against electoral rights
B:-Offences against property
C:-Offences against human life
D:-Offences against the state
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question47:-Section 186 of IPC deals with which of the following offence
A:-Filing false statement before a public authority
B:-Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions
C:-Distructing public property to influence others
D:-Disturbing public peace and tranquility
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Who ever causes any circumstances to exist or make any false entry in any book, or record or electronic record
A:-Commits forgory
B:-Commits misrepresentational
C:-Fabricates false evidence
D:-Create confiscated document
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-A person intentionaly refuses to give information of an offence to the concerned official, he is commiting
A:-A civil wrong
B:-A willful disobedience
C:-A moral omission
D:-An offense under law
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-Disclosure of identity of the victims of certain offences has been declared as punishable under
A:-Section 228-A of IPC
B:-Section 229-B of IPC
C:-Section 230-A of IPC
D:-Section 228-B of IPC
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question51:-Counter feiling Government stamp causes an offence punishable under ------------ of IPC
A:-Section 253
B:-Section 254
C:-Section 255
D:-Section 256
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-Section 263-A of IPC incorporates a provision on
A:-Control on economic affairs
B:-Prohibition of fictitious stamps
C:-Regulation of notes circulation
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question53:-IPC provides for punishing the offence of ----------- under section 264
A:-Harbouring an offender
B:-Producing forged document
C:-Preventing arrest of an offender
D:-Fraudulent use of false instrument for weighing
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-Causing common injury or inconvenience or annoyance to public in general is
A:-Civil wrong
B:-Public nuisance
C:-Private nuisance
D:-Tortious act
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Drug adulteration is an offence under ----------- of IPC
A:-Section 274
B:-Section 272
C:-Section 273
D:-Section 275
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-Who even voluntarily corrupts or fouls water of any public source shall be punished under ----------- of IPC
A:-Section 276
B:-Section 277
C:-Section 273
D:-Section 278
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Denote the provision incorporated is section 279 of IPC
A:-Fraudulant evidence
B:-Causing private nuisance
C:-Rash and negligent driving or riding on public way
D:-Rash navigation of a vessel
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-Section 294 of IPC held ----------- as an offence of
A:-Sale of obscene objects
B:-Causing negligent act
C:-Causing false representation
D:-Causing obscene acts or songs in public place
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question59:-Section 298 of IPC envisage a provision related to the offence
A:-Causing miscarriage
B:-Distroing religious harmony
C:-Ultering words to wound religious feelings
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-Causes death by doing an act with an intention of causing death, denotes
A:-Culpable homicide
B:-Murder
C:-Culpable homicide amounting to murder
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question61:-Rule of culpable homicide is not murder has not been applicable in which of the following
A:-Offender is deprived of self control
B:-Offender is under grave and sudden provocation
C:-Offender is acted by mistake of fact
D:-Offender is not with knowledge of consequences of his act
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-Any person on behalf of another chooses death and put some one else to death is an offence known as
A:-Murder
B:-Mercy killing
C:-Culpable homicide
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-Capital punishment does not include
A:-Death penalty
B:-Imprisonment for life
C:-Fine
D:-Compensation
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-Rarest of rare test is not applied in the following case
A:-Gowri shankar v state of TamilNadu
B:-Teja singh v Mukhtiar singh
C:-Nirmal singh v State of Haryanar
D:-Sheikh Ishaque v state of Bihar
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Governor's power to grant pardon in a criminal case is
A:-Subject to judicial review
B:-Not subject to judicial review
C:-Discretionary choice of judicial review
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question66:-Constitutionality of death sentence is determined in
A:-Sarman v state
B:-Jagpathi v state
C:-Dalip singh v state
D:-Jagmohan Singh v state
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question67:-Section 304-A of IPC deals with
A:-Murder
B:-Causing death by negligence
C:-Causing death by accident
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question68:-Original burden of proof to prove the case against the accused beyond doubt is remain fastened on
A:-The accused themself
B:-The prosecution itself
C:-The court of law
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-Section 304-A on dowry death has been incorporated in IPC corresponding to
A:-Child marriage (Prohibition) Act
B:-Protection of women against domestic violence Act
C:-Dowry Prohibition Act
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-An offender under imprisonment for life, attempts to murder, and who may be convicted with
A:-Fine of unlimited amount
B:-Imprisonment for one year period
C:-Similar punishment for the previous offence
D:-Death penalty
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-Whoever is a thing shall be punished under section 311 of IPC with
A:-Imprisonment for life and also with fine
B:-Imprisonment of life only
C:-Imprisonment for a period not more than 10 years
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question72:-Causing miscarriage without consent of the woman shall be punished with
A:-10 Years imprisonment and fine
B:-Life imprisonment and fine
C:-Imprisonment for a period of maximum seven years
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-Grievous hurt does not include
A:-Emasculation
B:-Privation of eye
C:-Causing fear of hurt
D:-Privation of joint
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-'Wrongful restraint' means
A:-Prevent from speech
B:-Prevent from voting
C:-Prevent from proceeding in any direction
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-Section 340 of IPC deals with
A:-Wrongful restraint
B:-Wrongful confinement
C:-Wrongful appreciation
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question76:-Force does not includes which of the following
A:-Causes motion
B:-Change of motion
C:-Cessation of motion
D:-Contact in motion
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question77:-Gesture or preparation to use criminal force by one person to another is denoted by ----------- in IPC
A:-Assault
B:-Affray
C:-Riot
D:-Robbery
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-Assault to woman with intent to outarage her modest is incorporated by ------------- in IPC
A:-Section 351
B:-Section 354
C:-Section 352
D:-Section 353
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-Whoever takes or entices any minor male under 16 year of age or minor female under 18 years of age community
A:-Kidnapping
B:-Abdection
C:-Dacoity
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-An offence under section 363-A is
A:-Cognizable
B:-Cognizable; non bailable
C:-Cognizable, non bailable and non-compoundable
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question81:-Offence under section 366 is to triable by a
A:-Judicial magistrate of 1st class court
B:-Court of sessions
C:-Chief judicial magistrate court
D:-Assistant Sessions court
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-A person who is unlawfully comples any other person to labour against the will of that person commits
A:-No wrong
B:-An immoral act
C:-An offence under IPC
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-'Habitual offender' under law denotes
A:-A person repeatedly convicted for similar offence
B:-A person convicted for a number of offences continuously
C:-A person who is convicted and sentenced for crimes over a period of time
D:-A person convicted for a same offence for more than once
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question84:-Punishment for rape, if the victim is below 12 years of age, is
A:-Death penalty
B:-Imprisonment for life
C:-Regorous imprisonment
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-Offences against property incorporated in ------------ of IPC
A:-Chapter XV
B:-Chapter XIV
C:-Chapter XVI
D:-Chapter XVII
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-A person puts any other persons in fear of any injury to that person commits
A:-No offence
B:-A tort
C:-An-offence of extortion
D:-A crime of theft
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-In all robbery there is
A:-Theft
B:-Either theft or extortion
C:-Extortion
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question88:-There must be involvement of ____________ persons to constitute dacoily
A:-Two or more
B:-Three or more
C:-Four or more
D:-Five or more
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-Section 405 of the IPC deals with ____________?
A:-Advance possession
B:-Criminal breach of trust
C:-Civil wrong
D:-Offence against property
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question90:-Receiving of stolen property as an offence is dealt in sections ____________ under IPC
A:-410 to 414
B:-398 to 409
C:-415 to 425
D:-371 to 378
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Causing loss or damage to the public or any person causing distruction of the property is
A:-Mischief
B:-Misappropriation
C:-Misutilization
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question92:-Owner himself can be guilty of criminal trespass of his own property
A:-Statement is valid under law
B:-Statement is false under law
C:-Statement cannot be substantiated by law
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-'House breaking' is incorporated in _________ of IPC
A:-Section 442
B:-Section 443
C:-Section 444
D:-Section 445
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-'Forgery' is an offence by which
A:-A person make under occupancy
B:-A person makes false document
C:-A person makes false coin
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-Property mark is mentioned in section ___________ of IPC
A:-477
B:-478
C:-479
D:-480
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question96:-Chapter XIX of IPC deals with __________?
A:-Criminal intimidation
B:-Criminal breach of trust
C:-Criminal breach of contract
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question97:-In IPC section 498-A deals with
A:-Offences related to marriage
B:-Offences related to property
C:-Offences related to voting
D:-Offences by husband and relatives to wife
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question98:-Defamation is a crime under section __________ of IPC
A:-499
B:-499-A
C:-499-B
D:-499-C
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-Section 509 of IPC deals with
A:-Offences affecting human body and mind
B:-Offences affecting modesty of a woman
C:-Offences affecting security of the state
D:-None of the above offences
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question100:-Attempt to commit any offence
A:-is only a preparation
B:-is not a crime
C:-is con relative of a crime
D:-is itself is an offence
Correct Answer:- Option-D
* IPC - PSC More Questions and Answers
1. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:
A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
2. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376B
C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
3. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:
A. Stalking
B. Voyeurism
C. Acid Attack
D. All of the above.
Answer: C
4. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 326A
B. Section 326B
C. Section 228A
D. Section 228.
Answer: B
5. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 354D.
Answer: A
6. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he commits:
(i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures.
(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.
(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.
(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Answer: D
7. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the ________ of a woman:
A. Vagina
B. Mouth
C. Urethra or Anus
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
8. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits:
A. Rape
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Sexual Assault
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
9. To establish section 34 of IPC:
A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. all the above.
Answer: A
10. Section 34 of IPC:
A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Answer: B
11. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:
A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
D. both (a) & (c).
Answer: B
12. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under:
A. section 39
B. section 38
C. section 37
D. section 40.
Answer: A
13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Answer: A
14. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:
A. death of a human being
B. death of an animal
C. death of a human being and of an animal both
D. death of either human being or an animal.
Answer: A
15. Illegal signifies:
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all the above.
Answer: D
16. Animal denotes:
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature – live or dead
D. either (a) or (c).
Answer: B
17. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four.
Answer: C
18. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer: C
19. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under section 64 of IPC:
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. both (b) & (c).
Answer: A
20. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to:
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
Answer: B
21. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine:
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.
Answer: B
22. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:
A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife.
Answer: A
23. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months.
Answer: C
24. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months.
Answer: B
25. Section 64 of IPC provides for:
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.
Answer: C
26. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate:
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Answer: C
27. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence:
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction
D. all of the above.
Answer: A
28. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be:
A. one year
B. two years
C. three months
D. six months.
Answer: C
29. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed 15 days
B. shall not exceed one month
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed forty-five days.
Answer: B
30. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed one month
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed three months.
Answer: C
31. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:
A. one month
B. two months
C. three months
D. six months.
Answer: C
32. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention – is the definition of good faith contained in:
A. section 29 of IPC
B. section 29A of IPC
C. section 52 of IPC
D. section 52A of IPC.
Answer: C
33. General exceptions are contained in:
A. chapter III of IPC
B. chapter IV of IPC
C. chapter V of IPC
D. chapter VI of IPC.
Answer: B
34. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:
A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
D. all the above.
Answer: A
35. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be:
A. bound by law to do it
B. justified by law to do it
C. bound by morality to do it
D. all the above.
Answer: B
36. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:
A. ignorance of law is no excuse
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.
Answer: A
37. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of:
A. mistake of law
B. mistake of fact
C. both mistake of law and fact
D. either mistake of law or of fact.
Answer: B
38. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in:
A. section 77
B. section 78
C. section 80
D. section 82.
Answer: C
39. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available when an offence is committed while:
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means
B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means
D. all the above.
Answer: A
40. The principle as to the way in which a man should behave when he has to make a choice between two evils is illustrated in:
A. section 80 of IPC
B. section 81 of IPC
C. section 82 of IPC
D. section 78 of IPC.
Answer: B
41. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code?
A. Lord William Bentinck
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Irwin
Answer: C
42. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is dealt under-
A. Section 354 of IPC
B. Section 355 of IPC
C. Section 356 of IPC
D. Section 357 of IPC
Answer: A
43. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into application in Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Indian Legislative Act
B. Ranbir Penal Code
C. Indian Penal Act
D. Mahomedan Act
Answer: B
44. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to wrongfully confine a person is dealt under-
A. Section 357 of IPC
B. Section 358 of IPC
C. Section 359 of IPC
D. Section 360 of IPC
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is the principle applied in construing a penal Act?
A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who would be liable to the penalty.
B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person who would be liable to the penalty.
C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment.
D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment.
Answer: B
46. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to the use of English law?
A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on the basis of principles governing self-defence under the English law
B. Reliance on case decided under the English law – misleading
C. In defamation cases the court must with reference – Section 499
D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in respect to the major offences which are universally applicable
Answer: A
47. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-
A. Section 385 of IPC
B. Section 386 of IPC
C. Section 387 of IPC
D. Section 388 of IPC
Answer: C
48. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?
A. a deed, a material result of human conduct
B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime
C. putting to death
D. uncommanded manner
Answer: B
49. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to kill him. However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass. They both died. The medical report claimed that Y actually died of cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance administered was insufficient to cause his death. In addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:
A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z
B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z
C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z
D. X is liable for the death of Z only
Answer: B
50. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of property, or the making alteration or destruction of valuable security is dealt under-
A. Section 417 of IPC
B. Section 418 of IPC
C. Section 419 of IPC
D. Section 420 of IPC
Answer: D
51. Literally, men's rea means:
A. guilty mind
B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose
C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness
D. All of the above
Answer: D
52. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen. The deceased was taken promptly to the hospital and the wound was stitched but a few days later he died. The evidence showed that at the time of death, the wound had healed. But due to terramycin injection being given in excess lungs had become over logged and caused pneumonia on the question of causation:
A. The appellant can be acquitted
B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted
D. The doctor must be acquitted
Answer: A
53. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-
A. Section 411 of IPC
B. Section 412 of IPC
C. Section 413 of IPC
D. Section 414 of IPC
Answer: C
54. Cheating is dealt under-
A. Section 417 of IPC
B. Section 418 of IPC
C. Section 419 of IPC
D. Section 420 of IPC
Answer: A
55. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property of himself or any other person or assisting in the doing thereof, or dishonesty releasing any demand or claim to which he is entitled is dealt under-
A. Section 421 of IPC
B. Section 422 of IPC
C. Section 423 of IPC
D. Section 424 of IPC
Answer: D
56. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular consequence will probably result from his act is sometimes an insufficient basis for saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons for holding that as a legal matter, he can be held to intend something that he knows for sure he is doing. This is called:
A. skewed intent
B. oblique intent
C. hypothetical intent
D. square intent
Answer: B
57. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under-
A. Revenues Acts
B. Public nuisance
C. Criminal cases which are in summary mode
D. All of these
Answer: D
58. House-trespass in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment if the offence is theft is dealt under-
A. Section 448 of IPC
B. Section 449 of IPC
C. Section 450 of IPC
D. Section 451 of IPC
Answer: D
59. During house-trespass or house-breaking in order to commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment and if the offence is theft is dealt under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 170 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 454 of IPC
Answer: D
60. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions, when instituted upon a complaint made by the Public Prosecutor, is dealt under-
A. Section 497 of IPC
B. Section 498 of IPC
C. Section 498A of IPC
D. Section 500 of IPC
Answer: D
61. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave him alone and go home. B refused and A struck her on the head and rendered her unconscious. A dragged B to the parking lot during which B’s head hit the pavement which caused her death.
A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the intent
B. A is only responsible for assaulting her
C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused due A’s negligence
D. None of them
Answer: C
62. Presumption of the culpable mental state of a person as per Section 10-C of the IPC includes:
I. Intention
II. Motive
III. Knowledge of the fact
IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: D
63. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house-trespass or house breaking is dealt under-
A. Section 458 of IPC
B. Section 459 of IPC
C. Section 460 of IPC
D. Section 461 of IPC
Answer: B
64. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain property is dealt under-
A. Section 458 of IPC
B. Section 459 of IPC
C. Section 460 of IPC
D. Section 461 of IPC
Answer: D
65. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for introducing into interstate commerce drugs that were misbranded. The President pleaded lack of knowledge of this fact?
A. The President must be convicted
B. The President must be acquitted
C. The President and the company must be convicted
D. none of them
Answer: A
66. False statements, rumours, etc, with the intent to create enmity, hatred or ill-will between different classes dealt under-
A. Section 169 of IPC
B. Section 505 of IPC
C. Section 171 of IPC
D. Section 172 of IPC
Answer: B
67. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was without insurance. Y was convicted of a violation of the Road Traffic Act, of 1988, he was not even driving the vehicle at that time. Y appealed against it in court.
A. the conviction should be upheld
B. the conviction must be set aside
C. both X and Y must be convicted
D. only X must be convicted
Answer: B
68. The question of whether a corporate body should or should not be liable for criminal action resulting from the acts of some individuals must depend on:
A. nature of the offence disclosed by the allegations in the complaint or in the charge sheet
B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the corporate body
C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show the corporate body as such meant or intended to commit that act
D. all of them
Answer: D
69. Automation in the legal sense implies:
A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts
B. without any knowledge of acting or action
C. with no consciousness of what is being done
D. all of them
Answer: D
70. Which of the following is false about the presumption of innocence?
A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal trials
B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner
C. it can be easily rebutted
D. graver the crime, the greater will be the degree of doubt that is reasonable
Answer: C
71. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme Court regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on the paltry ground?
A. The public is generally reluctant to come forward to depose before the court hence it is not correct to reject the prosecution version on the ground that all witnesses to the occurrences have not been examined.
B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the prosecution story, perhaps for the fear of disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the case overboard.
C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of corroboration by the independent witnesses if the case made out is otherwise true or acceptable.
D. All of them
Answer: D
72. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal intent a married woman is dealt under-
A. Section 497 of IPC
B. Section 498 of IPC
C. Section 498A of IPC
D. Section 500 of IPC
Answer: B
73. Which of the following is not true of the absence of an explanation from the accused?
A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as that of innocence
B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate other evidence
C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of an explanation
D. it is not material
Answer: C
74. Forgery is dealt under-
A. Section 464 of IPC
B. Section 465 of IPC
C. Section 466 of IPC
D. Section 467 of IPC
Answer: B
75. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if the document is one of the descriptions mentioned in section 466 of the Indian Penal Code is dealt under-
A. Section 471 of IPC
B. Section 472 of IPC
C. Section 473 of IPC
D. Section 474 of IPC
Answer: D
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court pointed out this fact in relation to the above question?
A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)
B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)
C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)
D. None of them
Answer: B
77. Attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment of life or imprisonment, and in such attempt doing any act towards the commission of the offence is dealt under-
A. Section 510 of IPC
B. Section 511 of IPC
C. Section 512 of IPC
D. Section 513 of IPC
Answer: B
78. Which of the following is the facet of Audi Alteram Partem?
A. notice of the case to be met
B. good faith
C. opportunity to explain
D. Both (A) and (C)
Answer: D
79. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on the Police report, under which section charges are framed?
A. Section 240 Cr. PC.
B. Section 246 Cr. PC.
C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.
D. None of them
Answer: B
80. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship etc, with intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt under-
A. Section 128 of IPC
B. Section 201 of IPC
C. Section 505 of IPC
D. Section 302 of IPC
Answer: C
81. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of his nationality can be held guilty and is liable to punishment for any offence within India?
A. Section 2 of IPC
B. Section 5 of IPC
C. Section 7 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Answer: A
82. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing death, hurt, etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 438 of IPC
B. Section 439 of IPC
C. Section 440 of IPC
D. Section 441 of IPC
Answer: C
83. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently opening the same is dealt under-
A. Section 462 of IPC
B. Section 463 of IPC
C. Section 464 of IPC
D. Section 465 of IPC
Answer: A
84. Under which of the following a corporation is indictable?
A. Vicarious liability
B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the conduct and state of mind of an individual
D. All of them
Answer: D
85. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another country. Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time the marriage took place.
A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3
B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil
C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3
D. None of them
Answer: C
86. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc. dealt under-
A. Section 438 of IPC
B. Section 439 of IPC
C. Section 440 of IPC
D. Section 441 of IPC
Answer: B
87. Which of the following section makes all the offences under the Code without exception to be extraterritorial?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Answer: B
88. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her marriage or to cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 365 of IPC
B. Section 366 of IPC
C. Section 367 of IPC
D. Section 368 of IPC
Answer: B
89. Extradition is:
A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired to be dealt with crimes of which he has been accused or convicted and which are justifiable in the Courts of the other countries
B. a political act is done in pursuance of a treaty or an arrangement ad hoc
C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on reciprocal arrangement
D. all of them
Answer: D
90. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit property mark is dealt under-
A. Section 485 of IPC
B. Section 486 of IPC
C. Section 487 of IPC
D. Section 488 of IPC
Answer: B
91. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction extends?
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas
B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial waters
C. Piracy
D. All of them
Answer: D
92. Which of the following is true about special law?
A. relates to a particular subject
B. applies only to a particular part of the country
C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act
D. both (A) and (C)
Answer: D
93. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the printer is dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC
C. Section 490 of IPC
D. Section 491 of IPC
Answer: C
94. Which of the following section of the IPC does not affect the provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny and desertion of officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the service of the Government of India or the provisions of any special or local law?
A. Section 3 of IPC
B. Section 4 of IPC
C. Section 5 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Answer: C
95. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:
A. contempt committed in facie curiae
B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus non derogrant
C. contempt committed in ultra vires
D. contempt committed in ad hoc
Answer: A
96. Robbery is dealt under-
A. Section 391 of IPC
B. Section 392 of IPC
C. Section 393 of IPC
D. Section 394 of IPC
Answer: B
97. False statement in connection with elections is dealt under-
A. Section 170 G of IPC
B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 172 G of IPC
D. Section 173 G of IPC
Answer: B
98. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship, etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 153A of IPC
B. Section 154A of IPC
C. Section 155A of IPC
D. Section 156A of IPC
Answer: A
99. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties
C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
D. Both (B) and (C)
Answer: D
100. The defendant was set to watch his master’s premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and hailed him and then shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed and shot the deceased whom he had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased
B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger
D. none of them
Answer: B
* Legal Awareness - Questions & Answers
1. Who was the first Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Js. J.S.Varma (b) Js. A.S.Anand
(c) Js. Rangnath Mishra (d) Js.M.N.Venkitachellayya
Answer: (c)
2. A person who knowingly and voluntarily participates with another in a criminal activity
(a) Accomplice (b) Martinet
(c) Truant (d) Pagan
Answer: (a)
3. Release of an accused on finding that he is not guilty under criminal law:
(a) Summons (b) Acquittal
(c) Prorogue (d) Bail
Answer: (b)
4. The person who makes and subscribes an affidavit.
(a) Defendant (b) Attorney
(c) Affiant (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
5. To take into custody by legal authority.
(a) Arrest (b) Bail (c) Surrender (d) Elope
Answer: (a)
6. The name of a writ having for its object to bring a person before a court
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeus Corpus
(c) Certiorari (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
7. A voluntary, written, or printed declaration of facts, confirmed by the oath of the party making it before a person with authority to administer the oath
(a) Affidavit (b) Writ (c) Summons (d) Verdict
Answer: (a)
8. The hearing of a dispute by an impartial third person or persons (chosen by the parties), whose award the parties agree to accept.
(a) Court Martial (b) Arbitration
(c) Alteration (d) Alibi
Answer: (b)
9. A foreign-born person who has not qualified as a citizen of the country.
(a) Plaintiff (b) Alien (c) Culprit (d) Guarenter
Answer: (b)
10. A private, disinterested person chosen by the parties in arbitration to hear evidence concerning the dispute and to make an award based on the evidence.
(a) Arbitrator (b) Defendant (c) Plaintiff (d) Counsel
Answer: (a)
11. The criminal offence of exhorting money with threats of detrimental action, as such exposure of some misconduct on the part of the victim:
(a) Black Market (b) Blackmail
(c) Kidnap (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
12. An agreement to stop the war:
(a) Guarentee (b) Memorandum
(c) Armistice (d) Amnesty
Answer: (c)
13. Concealing of objects by various means to deceive the enemy about their location and thereby protecting them from air and land attacks:
(a) Sabotage (b) Camouflage
(c) Guerilla warfare (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
14. Enquiry Commissions are appointed under the Commission of Enquiry Act of:
(a) 1952 (b) 1955 (c) 1960 (d) 1962
Answer: (a)
15. Gestapo was the secret police in:
(a) Russia (b) France (c) Italy (d) Germany
Answer: (d)
16. In which prison the assassin of Mahatma Gandhi was hanged?
(a) Chennai (b) Ambala (c) Yervada (d) Tihar
Answer: (b)
17. Indian Evidence Act was passed by the British Parliament in:
(a) 1872 (b) 1858 (c) 1861 (d) 1891
Answer: (a)
18. The headquarters of INTERPOL:
(a) London (b) Vienna (c) Geneva (d) Lyons
Answer: (d)
19. The Governor-General who organized Police Force in India for the first time:
(a) Dalhousie (b) Rippon
(c) Curzon (d) Cornwallis
Answer: (d)
20. The reduction of a sentence, from death to life imprisonment.
(a) Arbitration (b) Commutation
(c) Attachment (d) Parole
Answer: (b)
21. Trained IPS Officers will be posted for the first time as:
(a) DSP (b) ASP
(c) DIG (d) Commandant
Answer: (b)
22. The full form of F.I.R.:
(a) First Identification Report
(b) First Information Report
(c) First Inspection Report
(d) First Interrogation Report
Answer: (b)
23. Which one of the following abbreviations is correctly matched?
(a) PoW- Prisoner of War
(b) PoK-Pakistan Occupied Kashmir
(c) MOU- Memorandum of Understanding
(d) All are correct
Answer: (d)
24. The Prime Minister of India when CBI was created:
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
25. Which one of the following characters was created by Arthur Conal Doyle?
(a) Mandrake (b) James Bond 007
(c) Sherlock Holmes (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
26. The IPS Cadre is controlled by:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Home Ministry of Govt of India
Answer: (d)
27. Which is the first country to legalise mercy killing in the entire region:
(a) USA (b) Netherlands
(c) Japan (d) India
Answer: (b)
28. The offence of being disobedient or to be disrespectful of a court of law:
(a) Habeus Corpus (b) Quo Warranto
(c) Contempt of Court (d) Quarantine
Answer: (c)
29. The type of writ petition described as the best assurance for human liberty:
(a) Mandamus (b) Quo Warrnato
(c) Certiorari (d) Habeus Corpus
Answer: (d)
30. Period of compulsory isolation or detention enforced against travellers not
in possession of required health certificates:
(a) Quarentine (b) Curfew
(c) Hibernation (d) Detention
Answer: (a)
31. The social disgrace is abolished by Article 17 of the Constitution:
(a) Dowry (b) Untouchability
(c) Bribe (d) Corrpution
Answer: (b)
32. Regulation enjoining withdrawal of persons from the streets or the closing of
establishments or places of assembly at a stated hour:
(a) Quarentine (b) Curfew
(c) Certiorari (d) Habeus Corpus
Answer: (b)
33. Lie detector is otherwise known as:
(a) Polygraph (b) Kymograph
(c) Black box (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
34. An officer publicly authorised to certify deeds and documents:
(a) Vigilance Officer (b) Attorney General
(c) Notary Public (d) Ombudsman
Answer: (c)
35. Prosecution of very high officials such as president, chief justice etc:
(a) Court Martial (b) Impeachment
(c) Quarentine (d) Armistice
Answer: (b)
36. A proceeding brought to a higher court to review a lower court decision.
(a) Appeal (b) Bail
(c) Allegation (d) Court Martial
Answer: (a)
37. A statement of the issues in a written document (a pleading) which a person is prepared to prove in court.
(a) Plea (b) Alteration
(c) Allegation (d) Bail
Answer: (c)
38. The act of illegal entry with the intent to steal.
(a) Stalemate (b) Immigration
(c) Elopement (d) Burglary
Answer: (d)
39. Capital crime means:
(a) A crime punishable by life imprisonment
(b) A crime punishable by death
(c) A crime punishable by deporting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
40. The legal process by which the government takes private land for public
use, paying the owners a fair price.
(a) Attachment (b) Condemnation
(c) Auction (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
41. Taking a person’s property to satisfy a court-ordered debt.
(a) Arbitration (b) Attachment (c) Bail (d) Trial
Answer: (b)
42. Tear gas is otherwise known as:
(a) Lachrymator (b) Hallucinogen
(c) Analgesic (d) Anaesthetic
Answer: (a)
43. One who applies to the court for legal redress:
(a) Defendant (b) Plaintiff (c) Counsel (d) Convict
Answer: (b)
44. The Home Minister of India during the demolition of Babri Masjid:
(a) PV Narasimha Rao (b) Manmohan Singh
(c) S.B.Chawan (d) V.P.Singh
Answer: (c)
45. The chemical used by Vigilance authorities to trap corrupted officials:
(a) Potassium permanganate (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Chloroacetophenon (d) Trichloromethane
Answer: (b)
46. The constitution of which country is known as ‘Lawyer’s Paradise’?
(a) Britain (b) USA (c) India (d) Canada
Answer: (c)
47. The famous Hindi film star Sanjay Dutt was detained under ......in connection with the Mumbai blasts of 1993:
(a) PTA (b) FERA (c) TADA (d) MISA
Answer: (c)
48. The National Human Rights Commission was established in:
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
Answer: (d)
49. The principle behind Dactylography (Fingerprinting):
(a) All human beings have fingerprints
(b) Fingerprints are indelible
(c) No two fingerprints are identical
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
50. Which one of the following chemicals is used as tear gas?
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) Trichloromethane
(c) Potassium permanganate (d) Phenolphthalein
Answer: (a)
51. The first chairman of the National Human Rights Commission:
(a) A.S. Anand (b) Venkitachelliah
(c) Ranganath Mishra (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
52. Which country started the Special Branch of Police for the first time?
(a) England (b) USA
(c) India (d) China
Answer: (a)
53. Borstel Schools are established for offenders below the age of:
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 16
Answer: (d)
54. Books banned by the Government are known as:
(a) Black Books (b) Green Books
(c) Red Books (d) Yellow Books
Answer: (c)
55. Who argued for the first time for the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
(a) MK Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Motilal Nehru (d) BR Ambedkar
Answer: (c)
56. Who was the exponent of the first Criminal Code in the world?
(a) Hannibal (b) Romulus
(c) Alexander (d) Hammurabi
Answer: (d)
57. CIA (Central Intelligence Agency) is the secret police of:
(a) USA (b) UK (c) France (d) Russia
Answer: (a)
58. The headquarters of the European Court of Justice:
(a) Geneva (b) London
(c) Luxembourg (d) Hague
Answer: (c)
59. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice:
(a) New York (b) The Hague
(c) Geneva (d) London
Answer: (b)
60. Who introduced the Preventive Detention Bill in Parliament?
(a) JB Kripalani (b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Lal Bahadur Shashri (d) Sardar Patel
Answer: (d)
61. Temporary cessation or suspension of hostilities:
(a) Armistice (b) Curfew
(c) Espionage (d) Quarentine
Answer: (a)
62. The term ‘Modus Operandi’ means:
(a) Method of Operation
(b) Methode of performance
(c) Method of Attack
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
63. Trial of persons who violated military law:
(a) Court Martial (b) Impeachment
(c) Curfew (d) Contempt of Court
Answer: (a)
64. The action of digging of a buried dead body for re-postmortem:
(a) Excavation (b) Exhumation
(c) Superimposing (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
65. General pardon is given to offenders:
(a) Armistice (b) Truce
(c) Court Martial (d) Amnesty
Answer: (d)
66. The law which prevents the reproduction of literary or artistic works:
(a) Copyright (b) Patent
(c) Easement (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
67. The responsibility of national defence rests with:
(a) The president (b) The prime minister
(c) The cabinet (d) The defence minister
Answer: (c)
68. A judgment of guilt against a criminal defendant.
(a) Order (b) Decree
(c) Conviction (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
69. A tax on the privilege of transferring property to others after a person’s death:
(a) Estate duty (b) Excise duty
(c) Corporate tax (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
70. A writ of review issued by a higher court to a lower court.
(a) Certiorari (b) Quo warranto
(c) Habeus Corpus (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
71. An act in violation of the penal laws of a state:
(a) Sedition (b) Crime
(c) Anarchy (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
72. Detaining of a person by lawful process or authority to assure his or her appearance to any hearing:
(a) Parole (b) Custody
(c) Prosecution (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
73. Formal written charge that a person has committed a criminal offence.
(a) Verdict (b) Decree
(c) Complaint (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
74. Persons or businesses that cannot pay their debts:
(a) Alien (b) Plaintiff (c) Bankrupt (d) Intestate
Answer: (c)
75. Rules or laws adopted by an association or corporation to govern its actions.
(a) Bylaws (b) Will
(c) Charter (d) Quorum
Answer: (a)
76. The word ‘Police’ was coined by:
(a) Edgar Hoover (b) Robert Peel
(c) William Bentick (d) O.W.Wilson
Answer: (b)
77. An order issued by a court asking a person to appear before it is called:
(a) Warrant (b) Writ (c) Summons (d) Appeal
Answer: (c)
78. The prime minister of India when RAW (Research and Analysis Wing) was
created:
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
79. The first person in India who was detained under POTA (Prevention of Terrorist Activities Act):
(a) Sanjaya Dutt (b) AK Gopalan
(c) Vaiko (Y. Gopalaswamy) (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
80. The Executive Magistrate of a district:
(a) RDO (b) Tahsildar (c) District Collector (d) DSP
Answer: (c)
81. The Judicial System of India is influenced by:
(a) USA (b) Australia (c) Japan (d) Canada
Answer: (a)
82. Al-Qaida is a:
(a) Sunni extremist group
(b) Shia extremist group
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
83. The International Police Commission was set up in:
(a) 1914 (b) 1918 (c) 1923 (d) 1933
Answer: (c)
84. The Criminology Institute under the Home Ministry of India is at:
(a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad
(c) Chennai (d) Ghaziabad
Answer: (a)
85. The first state in India where a ruling government was dismissed by invoking Article 356 of the Constitution:
(a) Punjab (b) Andhra (c) Kerala (d) PEPSU
Answer: (c)
86. The act of releasing a person under police custody, with some conditions:
(a) Parole (b) Bail (c) Trial (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
87. Pentagon is the defence headquarters of:
(a) UK (b) USA (c) Russia (d) France
Answer: (b)
88. The exponents of the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Indian Law Commission (b) Constituent Assembly
(c) Cabinet Mission (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
89. Who headed the Indian Law Commission?
(a) Thomas Monroe (b) Jonathan Duncan
(c) Robert Palk (d) Lord Macaulay
Answer: (d)
90. The first country to organise the modern police force:
(a) England (b) France
(c) USA (d) Russia
Answer: (a)
91. The full form of C.I.D.:
(a) Criminal Information Department
(b) Criminal Identification Department
(c) Criminal Investigation Department
(d) Criminal Interrogation Department
Answer: (c)
92. The first country in the world to start a Finger Print Bureau:
(a) USA (b) England (c) India (d) France
Answer: (c)
93. The country where the system of Ombudsman was started:
(a) Norway (b) Sweden (c) Germany (d) Italy
Answer: (b)
94. The study of lawmaking:
(a) Nomology (b) Jurisprudence
(c) Penology (d) Criminology
Answer: (a)
95. An order from the Supreme Court or High Court to restrain a person acting in an office to which he is not entitled:
(a) Habeus Corpus (b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Prohibition
Answer: (c)
96. Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) was passed by the Parliament in:
(a) 1956 (b) 1971 (c) 1973 (d) 1977
Answer: (b)
97. Suppression of Immoral Traffic in Woman and Girls Act (SITA) was passed by Parliament in:
(a) 1971 (b) 1972 (c) 1956 (d) 1985
Answer: (a)
98. Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA) was passed by Parliament in:
(a) 1971 (b) 1973 (c) 1975 (d) 1977
Answer: (a)
99. Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act was passed by
Parliament in:
(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988
Answer: (a)
100. The temporary release of prisoners:
(a) Parole (b) Bail
(c) Summons (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
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